5.12.2009

what the Greek really means

It's one of the most dreaded phrases we as teachers/pastors/ministers can utter. "What the Greek word _____ really means is..." I'm sure those of us who are regular church goers have heard some variation on this phrase many times. Here are a few reasons why it's a bad idea to utter those words:

(side note: I will mostly write about the NT and Greek for a couple reasons. One is that I have mostly studied Greek, so I'm closer to that topic. The second is that I don't find the problems I will explain below to happen as much with Hebrew and the OT. I'm not sure why this is the case.)

1. Most likely, we're wrong:

And if we're not completely wrong, we're at the very least slightly off. Koine Greek (or NT Greek) was not a magical, beautiful, robust language. It was the language of the people. Koine means "common." It was common Greek. When we say how rich and deep each and every word actually is, we're misunderstanding the fact that this language is not necessarily a deep and rich language.

Think about this: We all know about the word "agape." We've heard that it means "unconditional love," or something like that. But when you start to read the NT, you realize that the NT writers used agape all the time. It was the normal word for love. It didn't have any deep and magical meaning. It just meant "love." Now the NT writers used agape in a lot of different ways; sometimes to indicate the love God has for people, and other times to indicate the kind of love the Pharisees had for themselves.

If you think about it, agape functions just like the English word "love." People love their spouses, their jobs, their cars, their American Idols, their parents, and so on. It doesn't mean much without the context.

2. When we say "What the Greek really means..." most often what we really are saying is, "What the dictionary says..."

A great example of this that I've heard is that the Greek word for "believe" in the NT really means, "to trust in, rely on, and cling to." As if the author knew when he or she wrote "pisteuo" that the word was pregnant with such deep and rich meaning. But if we just bust open an English dictionary, we can learn that the definition for believe can be any of those things. So we're really not expressing what the Greek means as much as we are expressing what the English definition of a given word actually is. No Greek needed there.

I think the problem comes when we don't have enough knowledge of Greek to do a proper word study. We simply open a basic lexicon and list of the various definitions of a Greek word. That's not exactly how it works. In other words, we can't just open up a Greek lexicon, look up "pneuma," read off the definitions of "spirit, wind, breath, etc." and claim we've done a word study. Furthermore, we can't then take those definitions and say the Greek word pneuma really means "spirit, wind, breath, etc." The author may not (and most likely did not) have all of the definitions in mind when he or she used the word.

Think about how frustrating it would be to have someone pick apart one of your emails like this. To a friend, you might write something like, "I'm scared I might lose my job this week." Should your friend bust open the dictionary and read all of the definitions for "scared" in order to properly understand your feelings? Wouldn't that most likely lead him or her down the wrong road when considering the intended meaning behind what you wrote? Think about it...

3. We remove the text from the people:

When we utter the words, "What the Greek really means" in a sermon or teaching, one of the things we are communicating is, "The English doesn't cut it. You have to be able to read the Greek to really understand what's going on here." Think about the kind of frustration that would cause someone. It could have devastating effects to regularly hear that you can't truly understand what's going in the Bible on unless you read Greek. Suddenly the text doesn't seem as accessible as it did before. In order to really "get it," you have to know what the Greek really means.

4. It makes the English versions seem unreliable:

If we keep harping on the idea that the English translation of the Bible is incomplete, we start to develop in people a mistrust of the various versions of the Bible. If we're always saying certain words really mean something other than what a person's English translation uses, we may be cultivating something in the people who hear us that is not healthy.

English translations, by and large, do a good job at translating what is a pretty complicated language and subject matter. I say Greek is complicated more because it is a dead language that no one speaks anymore. This makes it a bit challenging because we can't consult a native speaker to help us with what we've translated. So in the end, most translations do a good job communicating the ideas behind the text. Sure, they could have chosen different definitions for some words, but the spirit of what was written survives.

5. We put ourselves in an undeserved position of authority:

We are the ones who can really know what the Bible means. We know Greek, and since you can only understand what the Bible is really saying by reading the Greek, you must come to us in order to get to the bottom of scripture.

Sure, I might be overstating it a little, but I'm not that far off. If I'm a pastor who is regularly saying, "What the Greek really means...", I'm presenting myself as a type of authority in this area. In other words, I'm saying, "I know Greek. That's why I can know what the Bible really means." And to take it a little further, "You don't know Greek. Come to me, and I'll tell you what the Bible really means."

Add to this the fact that most people can't really check what we're saying to see if it's true. If I say the Greek word means something, who's going to challenge me on that? Most will take it as gospel. That's a bad thing. I'm placing myself and my words in a position of authority that is above criticism. Bad news for any person in a power position over others.

The boring stuff of Greek:

Here's an interesting thought: The title of my little blog is "grapso skubalon." The first word means, essentially "to write." The second word is a crass way of saying "dung." Nothing too enlightening there. But I purposely put the first word in the future tense. My original thought was to title the blog, "I will write crap."

Here's where it gets interesting
- The tense of the word "grapso" can be future (as I originally intended it), or the tense can be subjunctive (exactly the same form), which would change the translation to "I might write crap." Small difference, but kind of a big one. And the kicker is that the only way to tell what form I was using is by context. Since there is no context, it could go either way.

And that's the boring stuff of Greek. Did I intend the sentence to be future or subjunctive? Do I think I will always write crap, or do I think I might write crap at some point, but I might not? Big difference...

Note this: it's a long way from saying, "What the Greek really means..." Not to mention, it's a lot more boring too. People get excited about the perceived "magic" of the Greek language. In reality, Greek word studies can be boring and uninformative.

So when you feel yourself about to say those dreaded words, "What the Greek really means...," bite your tongue and express your thought without appealing to the Greek.

*These guys say it much more gracious than I am saying it.

12 comments:

Anonymous said...

you forgot to add that Hebrew is your favoritest language. ever.

Justin said...

Justin Fung likes this post.

Lovely Venus Blog said...

Hi Jon,

I just happened upon your blog. Interesting.

Now, I'm not a Greek scholar, but I wish to make a correction. I believe the Greek word for writing, drawing or painting is γράφω which in English would be "grapho". (Related English words are "graph" or "graphic"). Not "grapso". I think you've confused the Greek letters Psi and the Phi.

To be honest I'm one of those people who uses the phrase "what the Greek really means"! Funny, last semester I had a debate in a college Religious Studies class about this very subject. So that you know where I'm coming from, I'm not a Christian anymore and I was debating with a few of my fellow students who are Christians.

The issue for me is this: People quote the Bible all the time to reinforce their viewpoint on a myriad of social issues. They use it as a reference for how they vote, who they marry, what should be taught in science class, etc. I'm touching on many "hot button" issues, I know ( homosexuality, evolution, stem cell research, etc.) People regularly will back up their viewpoint with: " Jesus says...", "Paul says..", and so on.

The reason I started studying Koine Greek is because I was frustrated with the fact that Bible translations are so different. Despite this people freely use another phrase: "the Bible clearly says". I think that the truth is that the Greek can be very ambiguous. If you study it, that becomes obvious. Add to that the huge cultural, social and political differences of ancient and modern times.

I once read an article by a Christian scholar who thought it was important that seminary students learn Ancient languages for the very reason that it gave them the ability to challenge their college professors! His view was that people shouldn't blindly accept anyone else's opinion. Not even the person up front!

I agree. I think some Bible translations are very biased toward the translators point of view. I say do your own research!

Take care!
Hans

Jon said...

Hans,

Thanks for your reply to my blog. I'm hoping that you will get the chance to read my response at some point since I can't email you back directly.

My choice to use "grapso" instead of "grapho" was deliberate, as I stated in the post to which you commented. "Grapso" is either future indicative or present subjunctive of the lexical "grapho" that you mentioned. As a future, it means "I will write..." As as subjunctive, it means something to the effect of "I may write..."

So I didn't use the lexical form of "grapho" intentionally.

Second, your comments about how people use the Bible are great, and they're comments that I may address in the future on my blog. I too get frustrated by how Christians use the Bible to promote some kind of morality. My short response to this is that the Bible may not necessarily be a moral authority in the way we traditionally understand "moral authorities." Instead, I would argue that culture determines morality much more often than the Bible, and we should pay attention to this.

That is an oversimplified response, but hopefully you get the idea. Thanks for your comments!

Jon

Lovely Venus Blog said...

Hi Jon,

Thanks for responding. Good point. I stand corrected! I consulted my Liddell and Scott's Lexicon. I understand what you're saying regarding the form of "grapho".

I also agree with your comment: " I would argue that culture determines morality much more often than the Bible, and we should pay attention to this." We discussed this in my religious studies class.

Just my opinion, but I think it's unfortunate that more people in this society aren't exposed to the historical aspects of the Bible and Christianity. I've had conversations with modern Evangelical Christians who view themselves alone as the "true Christians" (their words, not mine). Yet when I talk to them they are unaware of the history of their Bible, religion, theology, church fathers, reformation, schisms, etc.

I've run into this attitude time and time again. They seem to think that their brand of Christianity just popped out of nowhere. They feel they have absolute truth. End of story.

In a conversation with a young woman, a preachers daughter, she kept asking me "It says that in the Bible?" She was unaware of much of her scripture. When I asked her about her Bible study classes, she just said that it wasn't the place to "ask questions" about historicity, difficult theological questions, etc.

My question to her was, why it was even called "Bible study"?

Take care,
Hans

Unknown said...

Euxaristw poli! Thank you for your website. When I go to church and the pastor destroys a Greek word, I cringe. My husband looks at me and snickers because he knows I inevitably always shrink down in my chair. Often times, their pronunciation turns a word into something altogether different (sometimes no very nice). I wish it would be mandatory for them to learn to read and write in in our alphabet.

Eleni

Lovely Venus Blog said...

I have to that I'm not a Christian anymore. And I'm not a Bible scholar, but I can translate (slowly) using my Greek NT and Liddell and Scott's Greek-English Lexicon. I've also read works by Christian apologists including C.S. Lewis, Lee Strobel. I've attended debates at Biola University. On the flip side I've also read ex-Christian scholars like Bart Ehrman, Hector Avalos, Robert M. Price, etc.

It always amazes me how little modern Evangelical Christians know about their own religion, including what the NT says in Greek! I'd bring issues up in my Religious Studies class that I took last semester and many Christians didn't even know what I was talking about!

I agree. I think it would be better if most Christians had a least a little understanding of ancient Greek.

Jon said...

Eleni and Hans,

Thanks so much for your comments. So you know, I moved my blog over to Wordpress. You can access it at jddamiani.com

Hans, I recently met with a Presbyterian pastor who is working on becoming credentialed through the Presbyterian church. He mentioned that one of the requirements for ordination is to pass a Greek/Hebrew proficiency test. I was encouraged to hear that a denomination cares deeply that their pastors understand the Bible's original languages.

Unknown said...

This is to Hans who said "The Greek can be very ambiguous". That statement couldn't be further from the truth. Greek is my first language and I read and write it fluently. Greek is very much to the point. It's not like English where one word means a few different things( words like "right" "two", "too", "to") I'm sure you get my point.

Lovely Venus Blog said...

Hi Elena. Sorry, I didn't mean to say anything negative about the Greek language.

I meant that the English translations of the ancient Koine Greek Bible manuscripts could be ambiguous. I live in the U.S., but originally came from Holland. Growing up I heard both English and Dutch. So I know that something can be lost in translation from one language to another. And this problem seems to be exacerbated with an ancient language. Because not only are we dealing with what the ancient writer was putting down on paper, but also the context of the ancient time that he was living in.

Not to open up a can of worms, but I'll cite an example to illustrate my point. Scholars have been debating this one for years. In fact, I unintentionally started up a big debate in my religious studies class about this! For example: 1 Corinthians 6:9. Christians I know say this clearly states that it states that homosexuals are wicked and got to heaven, won't inherit the kingdom of God, etc.
Because it says so in their Bible translation. The NIV translates it as: "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders."

So here is where I think it get ambiguous. You speak Greek, so I don't have to tell you, that the two words at the center of this debate are "arsenokoitai" and "malakoi".

Now my quesion is: Do either of these words really (and unambiguously) translate as "male prostitutes" and "homosexual offenders"?

From what I've read "arsenokoitai" isn't in any other Greek writing. Paul made the word up. The closest I get in researching this: "arsenokoitai-Those guilty of natural offenses".

The meaning of "malakoi" seems sketchy also. "malakoi" ( a form of malakos) -soft, gentle, effeminate, weak, tender". Some scholars seem to doubt that it means "effeminate". Especially in the modern sense.

The ancients valued males and masculinity more than females.In ancient Rome and especially Greece, homosexual behavior among emperors, soldiers and other males was not uncommon. Though I think the prevalence seemed to be bisexuality.

So "effeminate" could mean a man hung around too many females and not enough males, showed too much emotion, or that he wasn't a strong manly laborer, soldier, etc.

One scholar even found evidence that certain types of goatees (vs. fuller more "manly" beards) were considered effeminate! Different contexts, different times, different culture.

I read "Misquoting Jesus", an excellent book by Bart Ehrman, a New Testament and Greek scholar. He cites the many scribal errors, misspellings, and variations in thousands of Greek manuscripts of the NT. He also brought up the fact that the oldest Greek manuscript had no punctuation, spaces, upper and lower case letters. So even just parsing out the Greek isn't an exact science.

Plus ancient manuscripts are incomplete with missing pages, lines, words, etc. So sometimes translators have to guess what was written. Hector Avalos, a Greek and Hebrew scholar has brought up the same points.

So, that's what I meant by the ancient Koine Greek being ambiguous. Sorry for the long explanation. I just wanted to be clear. Have a good day! :)

Lovely Venus Blog said...

Eleni,

Oops! I misspelled your name in my last reply.

I apologize! :)

Kyle said...

Heh. Ran across this post from a google search for σκύβαλον. At least your greek blog name was less pretentious than mine.